but with large trials there will be no significant differences overall between the behaviour of the people who were given the vaccine and those with the placebo
Indeed, this is all fine, my concern is that there was some confounding factor in the selection of the vaccine group.
(This is not what I think is true, but this is a hypothesis that could work and be bad)
You're worried that there's not enough virus in the community that your subjects will be exposed, so you select NHS staff for the trial, vaccinate them all, see success 5 with vaccine, 95 without!
Reality is that the vaccine only works as a booster due to previous infection and you actually selected a group that had already been infected and the 5/95 was the re-infection rate in that community.
I don't think that's true (neither that selection process, nor that level of previous infection in the study group seems likely) but it feels difficult to believe that the group was representative in some way when the infection rate is so different - obviously this trial wasn't even in the UK, but the US would've suffered similar risks - testing either in an area where there was considerable existing infection or in an area where there should have been significant infection.
I'd just like some commentary on what seems odd.