Just posting on here as a bit dumbfounded with some news today.
DH was ill mid March with classic symptoms. GP friend had some antibody tests a couple of week (not sure which ones but not the approved ones as rate of false negative too high). We did them, DH positive which was no surprise, me negative which was a bit annoying as I thought I'd had mild symptoms (which were probably anxiety looking back).
However, DM and her partner have both just had NHS tests through work and both got positive results.
The thing is, they were ill over Christmas and new year with what we now know are classic symptoms - DM's partner very ill over Christmas, which went on for months finally leading to a pleurisy diagnosis early March, he's been shielding since then and still has breathing problems now. DM was ill over new year for about 3 weeks but fine now.
Obviously at the time we hadn't even heard of covid, since then DM has been convinced she had it which we poo pooed as too early - but seems she was right! Unless they somehow were very ill with all the symptoms and it was something else, but then got symptomless covid after?
If we assume they did have it over Christmas - surely a large proportion of the population must have been exposed already? They hadn't travelled beforehand so no reason to think they would have been more at risk.