@ComeAsYouAreAsAFriend
You're right it is a long read, but nonetheless very helpful to the debate.
The introduction neatly sums up the charge of genocide as:
"The acts and omissions by Israel complained of by South Africa are genocidal in character because they are intended to bring about the destruction of a substantial part of the Palestinian national, racial and ethnical group, that being the part of the Palestinian group in the Gaza Strip ("Palestinians in Gaza"). The acts in question include killing Palestinians in Gaza, causing them serious bodily and mental harm, and inflicting on them conditions of life calculated to bring about their physical destruction. The acts are all attributable to Israel, which has failed to prevent genocide and is committing genocide in manifest violation of the Genocide Convention, and which has also violated and is continuing to violate its other fundamental obligations under the Genocide Convention,"
With the key part being "they are intended to bring about the destruction of a substantial part of the Palestinian national, racial and ethnical group, that being the part of the Palestinian group in the Gaza Strip ("Palestinians in Gaza").".
Now given that so far less than 2% of the 2.1 million Gazan national, racial and ethnic group has been killed whereas 6.8% of the 80 million German national, racial and ethnic group were killed by the allies, I would argue that a far greater or substantial part the German national, racial and ethnic group were destroyed than what is happening in Gaza. Secondly at exactly what percentage of deaths of a country's population mean that it is genocide?
So I then return to my original point of why is the Israeli attacks on Hamas and Gaza considered a genocide despite much lower numbers when the Allied attacks on the Nazis and Germany is not considered a genocide. The obvious answer has nothing to do with the figures and everything to do with political motivation in that the Allies won.