This study is interesting.
Can you please explain why this image shows that the group labelled 'transgender women' only fall within the range of the group labelled 'cisgender men' if the study was so definitive? Because to me, it doesn't show a strong conclusion.
The study states:
"The brains of transgender women ranged between cisgender men and cisgender women (albeit still closer to cisgender men), and the differences to both cisgender men and to cisgender women were significant (p = 0.016 and p< 0.001, respectively). "
and
"The follow-up post hoc tests revealed that transgender women were significantly more female than cisgender men (Cohen’s d = 0.64, t(46) = 2.20, p = 0.016), but significantly less female than cisgender women (Cohen’s d = 1.87, t(46) = 6.48, p < 0.001)."
Plus there was this:
"The combination of male genes, androgens, and (to some degree) male upbringing should ordinarily be expected to result in a male-typical brain"
Yet we know from the London cabbie studies that behaviours that fit particular groups of people may create specific impacts on the brain. So, even if those male people didn't not take hormones, however interacted with the world doing stereotypical activities and interests that could be considered stereotypically female, the brain will show this. As did the London cabbie studies.
So, another study that shows there may be a difference in the brain but these studies do not show that they are 'like female' people and still tend to be 'male' in categorisation.
I couldn't see, just like the other other study, where they may have segregated sexual orientation and whether this would have any impact. Did you see anywhere where they controlled for that please? I have read that homosexual males do have some differences that may impact studies such as these.
I believe that 25% of the male people in this study who identify as being transgender were homosexual male people. "Six transgender women reported to be androphile (attracted to men)" That is 25% of 24 people in that category. And I did not see where they specified the same % of the other male population they measured.
If you find these studies support your opinion then that is good to know. Thank you for posting them. My opinion that "It is false to say they have different brains because this is not based on evidence at all, it is based on misinformation" remains essentially unchanged. Now I would say it is based on very weak evidence that doesn't seem as strong as you seem to feel it is.