Would like an outside opinion on this...
My ex of 20 years (15 married) and I bought an e-piano 15 years ago from the household budget for the children to learn on - about 800 euros I think. Ex and I since broke up. He's in the old house and I am in a little flat. The piano stayed in the house (no formal agreement). Kids are adults. When they are in town (maybe 6 weekends a year) they stay in their old rooms at the house, not with me.
I am on a course that requires me to learn the piano. Wrote to ex about needing the e-piano. He replied: "The piano is used by the kids whenever they stay over night and I really enjoy them practicing and their music, so I’d like it to stay there but you could borrow it for the time it’s needed for your course, if the kids are ok with it".
I also enjoy them practising and haven't heard them do so in 5 years now. Exh does not play the piano. I will need a piano or keyboard to practise after this course.
Ex thinks he's entitled to the piano and that he's being generous by "letting" me borrow it. I think I have just as much right to have the piano as him. Of the two of us, I'm the one who actually needs to use a piano or keyboard regularly. It was originally the kids' piano but they don't use it very often now.
Would it be reasonable of me to claim the piano and tell him to stuff his supposed generosity where the sun doesn't shine? Or AIBU - e.g. as we both have a claim to it and the children might play it more often during their visits if it's at the house?