Asking on behalf of a friend (genuinely), and with her permission, I praised mumsnet collective wisdom to her
. We discussed this topic yesterday in a small circle of friends after she asked us for advice, and opinions differed a lot.
She is divorced with three children (two in primary school, one pre-school). The children's father is an every second weekend dad with a relatively common story (arrrrrgh, she's such a bad/unstable mum, I'll petition for 100% custody. Gave her a lot of hard time, and then suddenly lost interest).
Her childcare arrangements have suddenly collapsed and there appeared to be a two-three week gap in the arrangements (a new nanny, about to start in late August, had a personal emergency and had to delay her start for three weeks).
The children's father agreed to help and cover these three weeks (he was not employed), collecting the children from school / nursery, bringing them to my friend's place and looking after them until she's home.
The night before his first day, he called her and explained that he expects to be paid a market nanny daily rate to compensate him for inconvenience. It was a massive surprise but she agreed as, realistically, there was no other option. She paid him around £400/week in cash.
Now, the third week of their agreement is coming to an end, and he had demanded formal payslips and evidence that all taxes /NI have been paid (as they would be for a nanny). It is an affordable amount for her (she used to pay, and will pay the same for a permanent nanny) the question is about the principle.
I think this is absolutely outrageous, and that under no circumstances should she entertain this. It is called parenting, not employment.
WWYD?