I have been arguing on another forum with some men who think that if a man has sex with a woman and she says she's on the pill...and isn't...then all the fault for the unwanted baby lies with her.
whilst I agree that most of the blame is with her, surely it makes sense for a man who does not want a baby to make double sure that he cannot end up with one by wearing a condom?
They say I am victim blaming....that if a couple has an agreement about the pill, then he has been "raped" in a way and that the promise should be enough.
I said why take the risk though? And they tried to liken it to a man filming all sexual encounters to ensure that no accusation of rape could occurr and that by suggesting men "be prepared" I am as bad as people who say women shouldn/t wear short skirts or go out alone after dark.
Am I being unreasonable then? Fully prepared to be told if I am and accept it. I just can't see it at the moment though.