After a visit from the PIL last year, DH commented that FIL (who's 64) had been suffering sporadically from urinary incontinence (being generally continent but completely weeing himself without warning every now and again) and was going to see the doctor about it.
I found DH wrinkling up his nose sniffing the sofa after FIL's next visit a few months later, and when I asked him what he was doing, he replied that FIL was still 'losing control of himself' and that his trousers had been wet. I inquired whether FIL had been to see the GP, and DH said yes, they'd referred him for tests and they'd all come back normal. The GP couldn't explain it.
Then last week FIL came again, this time while DH was at work. I noticed as soon as he came in that his light grey jogging bottoms were soaking wet down to his knees. He sat down on the couch
and stayed there for about 45 minutes. Then when he got up to leave, I noticed he had a duffel bag with him. He went to the bathroom and voila! New pants! And off he popped.
Sooo, am I being unreasonable in suggesting that FIL is wetting himself on purpose for attention? I understand that the GP saying that he doesn't have a physical problem doesn't necessarily mean there isn't one, doctors can be wrong. What I don't understand is why somebody would not wear pads if they knew there was the chance that they could wet themselves, or why somebody who had a change of clothes would not get changed and choose instead to sit down for 45mins (with his legs wide open
) on random's poor sofa. Does anybody have any better suggestions? Am I just a horror (probably, for many other reasons
) whose hatred for the inlaws is making me irrational, or is my random-sense tingling in a reasonable manner?