myob, sorry im not quite sure what you mean. If someone caught type HSV2 from having oral sex with somebody who had genital herpres and then passed on a coldsore to another person. If you have type HSV2, then you pass on HSV2, not HSV1. The different strands remain different, regardless of where on your body you get them. Does that make more sense?
So if someone passes HSV1 (coldsore) onto someones genitals, its still HSV1. If someone passes HSV2 (GH) onto someones mouth its still HSV2.
As i stated earlier in the thread it is all about 'consent', you cannot consent to something if you have no prior knowledge of it. So the Court wouldnt focus so much on whether the person intended to infect you. They would focus on whether you consented to sex, knowing that person was infected. (obviously the two are closely linked)
With HIV it is assumed that no one would consent to having unprotected sex with an HIV sufferer. The same principal could apply to any STD, no one would consent to sex knowing the GH was active, no one would consent to unprotected sex knowing the person had gonorrhea etc, etc. So the fact that the 'victim' has this STD in the first place is a factor.
It would then have to be proven that the sufferer was the source of the STD, that they hadnt taken appropriate precautions to contain the spread etc, etc. Extremely hard to prove with GH, unless the person admits to it.
I would imagine it would cause the same amount of embarrasment and stress to both parties concerned, as they would both have the STD and be under investigation.
Im no legal expert! just my thoughts, based on what i have read 