Years ago I applied for a job. It asked for x years of relevant experience in a very specialised field, which I had. It asked for a good working knowledge of a language, which I had. Two male colleagues applied. They had similar experience to me, but not directly relevant to the job, which mine was.
Neither had any knowledge whatsoever of the language. Both got an interview because the hiring manager was a former colleague of theirs. Both were shown the exam paper before the exam, which formed part of the hiring process. One withdrew at this point, as he said this was unfair to other candidates. The other went ahead. He did well in the exam, as he had been able to swot up on the questions. He was asked at interview if he thought he would be able to learn the language quickly (he had made no effort despite living in the country for five years). He said yes. He was asked if he could learn about this new field quickly. He said yes. He got the job, as he said "because old Mick, whom I've known for yonks, wanted to work with me again."
I asked why I didn't get an interview. I was told that the relevant experience had to have been obtained "not as a civilian." This wasn't mentioned in the job spec. The person who got the job really struggled with it for a long time, and was carried by his line manager and the junior people in the office (which they resented - understandably). Better suited people could have got the job and hit the ground running. But it didn't happen because Old Mick wanted to work with his mate.
Explain to me how that is fair. For a net salary of $7,000 per month. On top of Old Mick's mate's pension of $40,000 per annum.