The real question, though, is why did English drop its gendered nouns.
I've read that dropping the genders happened quite early - when there was a mix of Vikings and Saxons and other languages and dialects spoken in England. It made it easier for people to communicate when trading. But I've also read (MN) that genders were still in use in middle English which would be later than that.
How are English kids supposed to learn how to read using phonics, when vowels don't even make consistent sounds, and you need to place them in the context of the whole word to parse them?
Teaching phonics is quite complicated, and the children have to learn the whole phonics system, rather than just the sounds letters make, and an adult correcting you with the exceptions like in the 80s (when I was at school). Today the children learn all the combinations and sounds (ew - screw oo- moon, oe- shoe sound the same, but spelt differently, plus the spelt the same but sound different eg. moon, book). They are taught phonics in an intensive way.
It certainly really helps some children, but phonics doesn't suit every child.
It also can be complicated by various dialects - where I grew up newspaper is pronounced how it's spelt, where I live it's pronounced noospaper.
I was pondering the origins of why tear (crying) and tear (rip) are spelt the same. Perhaps it's like the silent k in Knight and originally they were both pronounced t-ear.