I'm addressing the earlier claim that 24% of people in the UK are "disabled" - where it comes from and what it means. I don't think that that figure is related in any way to any definition in the Equality Act and I haven't claimed it is.
If you listen to the More or Less episode that I linked to you will see that they discuss the claim that 1 in 4 people are disabled. I presume they are talking about the 24% statistic as it would be an amazing coincidence if they weren't.
The programme says that that figure comes from the Family Resources Survey produced by the ONS.
According to More or Less that survey uses two criteria to determine if you are disabled:(1) do you have a physical or mental health condition or illness that has lasted for, or is expected to last for, more than 12 months, and (2) "Do any of your conditions or illnesses reduce your ability to carry out day to day activities (i) yes, a lot (ii) yes, a little (iii) not at all". [My bold for emphasis]
That last bit in italics is a verbatim quote from the programme and I hope you would agree that it is perfectly reasonable to paraphrase (2)(i) and (ii) as "at least a little".
The point I'm trying to make - perhaps not very well - is that the 24% figure seems to be based on questions from the Family Resources Survey where having a long term condition that reduces your ability to carry out day to day activities even just "a little" is sufficient to count as being disabled, whereas under the EA your condition has to have a "substantial and long-term adverse effect on [your] ability to carry out normal day-to-day activities".
The point is that when people start talking about the number of people who are "disabled", you need to know what definition of "disability" is being used as the EA definition is much narrower and more restrictive than that used in the Family Resources survey. [Edit1: and in particular I find it very hard to believe that 24% of the population is disabled to the extent rquired by the Equality Act. The 24% definition is so broad as to be virtually meaning less]
I could consider myself to be disabled under the Family Resources Survey criteria, but I wouldn't have a disability under the EA definition.
Hope that's clearer.
[Edit2: I don't claim any familiarity with the Family Resources Survey. I'm reling on the More or Less programme I linked to]