I am really struggling with the concept of misgendering, following the blanket statement made by one of the interviewees on R4 this morning that "misgendering is wrong".
How can this be? If we accept that the Equalities Act allows for single sex provisions, and even to the extend of excluding those people who hold a GRC in certain circumstances, it follows that there may be occasions when 'misgendering' is required in order to correctly apply the law.
Take a few scenarios:
- A transwoman going for a quiet coffee and being pointedly and repeatedly referred to using male pronouns by a member of staff. Transwoman politely requests the use of female pronouns instead. Member of staff laughs and continues to refer to the transwoman as male.
- A transwoman using the female toilets in a workplace, despite the availability of unisex facilities and a multicultural diverse environment in which some women have previously stated that they are extremely uncomfortable with the idea of a male-bodied person entering the female-only space.
- Requesting assistance with a fitting for a first bra for a young teenage girl, and discovering that this service is being provided by a transwoman.
No-one but a complete dick would think the first scenario is OK. Bullying and humiliating someone like this would be a despicable act, and (in my mind) this is what #bekind was supposed to be about - and would have been better coined as #don'tbeanarse
But what about scenarios 2 and 3, where the women and girls involved have their own feelings which are also valid? How can it be wrong for a woman to express her discomfort in these circumstances?
I guess I am frustrated because whenever the term 'misgendering' is used, I think people assume that the context is something akin to the first scenario, and that women are just being mean. I think there needs to be some clearer distinction made around deliberate, unnecessary 'misgendering' and a woman's right to query if her sex-based rights are being compromised. A single term is not adequate, surely?