You made a number of claims about that study jj1968. I quoted directly from the study to counter your claims with the facts. The study analysed the post-op transsexual population of a whole albeit small country over decades. Longitudinal studies are precisely what we need to make the kind of serious policy decisions being made now.
I wonder if you appreciate how statistical analysis works or what longitudinal research means if you keep complaining about "decades old data" or "just 4 crimes" when the overall likelihood that a given individual commits a crime is small and the number of those who are successfully prosecuted is even smaller.
The transsexuals in the Swedish study were not only properly counselled btw, they were vetted before being allowed to transition. A process that eliminates those who seek to transition for nefarious reasons. No such safeguards exist with today's cohort of males who identify as trans.
And let's look at that cohort. According to GIRES, by 2015, a scant 15% of people who identify as trans in the UK had made contact with medical providers. That's contact. The number who have medically transitioned in any way is far smaller still.
If you read the science on transsexualism, you'll know that homosexual transsexuals transition early and tend to transition medically, most likely fully if they can. And the ratio of homosexual vs non-homosexual transsexuals depends on the individualism factor of the country they live in. The higher a society values individualism, the higher the percentage of non-homosexual transsexuals. Various studies have shown that the ratio is highest in Western countries. Conservatively, that's about 4 to 1 ie for every one homosexual transsexual there are four non-homosexual transsexuals. (Check Anne Lawrence's research on this. A respected researcher in this field, and someone who has transitioned, so with a lot of understanding and personal experience.)
Of course, today's trans umbrella includes a large number of people who identify as trans but have no intention to transition medically. US data shows that only 5% of people who identify as trans actually socially transition. So the statistics suggest that a large number of males who identify as trans in the UK today are not seeking to medically transition and don't socially transition either, which means they are mostly crossdressers. Studies into transvestism consistently show that the vast majority of crossdressers is male and straight.
So, given that the vast majority of males who identify as trans are fully intact males attracted to females, it is entirely correct to ask where is the evidence that these males pose a smaller risk to females than all other males. I would be particularly interested to know what would cause the risk to be lower in those who have, at most, socially transitioned.
You also said
If someone was trying to make a claim of increased criminality amongst a certain ethnic group or other marginalised group based on such weak evidence then I think most people might question the motivations of those making the claims
We are not making a claim of increased criminality amongst a sub group (here males who identify as trans), we state that criminality is neither increased nor decreased compared with the whole group (here all males).
You however are trying to make a claim of decreased criminality and on no evidence. I'm not questioning your motivation, but I am questioning whether you understand that the same conditions apply to both sides in a debate.