Epilesy question

[PeachyBidsYouNadoligLlawen]

This sint for me- I said I would ask for a friend whose ds1 has just been diagnosed (Monday) and who has bee wonderful with ds3 over the last 2 years.

Her son has been given meds for the rop attacks (he's had them for a while but school didnt mention ntil he hurt himself badly enough to need a few days in hospital- then they did an EEG and found '100% distict' patterns in a certaina rea (Mum doesnt know what area yet)

Now she is wondering whether what she has been told about the absence seizures he has is right? he has around 60 a day (always has had,, indeed I expected someone to eventually send for AS dz I confess, she's diarising 60 a day atm) but Paed says of no consequence.

Is that right?

I will ahve other questions over the next few days from her (Mum a bit distraught atm)

Obviously you need the oracle that is NMC for this, but perhaps your friend may find this page helpful, if she is a bit distraught. It's quite (compared to what I'm used to reading recently) non-scary and straightforward.

What I mean is, from that page I can see perhaps why the absence seizures were of no consequence alone

thanks will giver her the link

sje's distraught as she' very over protectve anyway (OCD) but he already has diabetes as well, and hearing problems- issues seem to be coming from all sides.

plus school senco too busy but i'll take her on, done it before after all

I think as long as they are "typical absences" (ie about 10 seconds, not a lot happens) then they are considered Mostly Harmless. It's usual to give meds to control them if only to stop kids zoning out in class. But it's entirely sensible to give meds which target the drops primarily and hope these also catch the absences.

DD1 gets most sort of seizures, including absences - the only ones I can think she doesn't have is myoclonic jerks. So it's common enough to have more than one sort and for some of them to be considered benign.