Gonorrhoea

[Jennyie]

Hello,

I’m at my wits end. For the last 6 weeks I have experienced an increase in vaginal discharge, towards the latter stage it changed colour slightly - to a pale green.

Two weeks previous to this, after sexual intercourse with my Husband he experienced some dryness, uncomfortable red skin at the end of his penis (at the time we put it down to vaginal dryness after my period) He went to the sexual health clinic, but by the time his appointment came round it had cleared up and he wasn’t tested for anything.

One week later I went to the clinic, was tested, immediate results diagnosed gonorrhoea. Was treated. He was then tested and treated the same day, assuming any sexual partners would have contracted it too.

We have a completely monogamus relationship.

He has received a text message 4 days after his test to say all his results are negative.

I’m back at the clinic in 3 weeks to test again.

Not sure whether it’s worth mentioning that the clinic also looked for the ‘threads’ on my coil, Dr couldn’t find the coil. This is the second time it’s got ‘lost’
He’s having the snip this time...

He had gonorrhoea 30 years ago and was treated, have asked whether it lies dormant for that long and answer is unlikely.

Anyway, so, I guess my simple question is - how else is gonorrhoea contracted apart from sexual intercourse/oral sex/vaginal birth?

Apart from my immediate test results being wrong I’m not coming up with anything.

We left the country the day after the tests/treatment so I can’t really go to my GP etc. I’m back at the clinic the day after we get back. Just having to sit it out. Tearing my hair out.

Thanks for reading until the end 🥴

Any advice/ideas?

Best Wishes
Jennyie

Are you sure he didn’t get tested in private without you knowing and treated his .. knowing you We’re going to get tested soon... So his come back neg while yours is positive.

One of you has cheated. It’s that simple.

The immediate results need to be confirmed with lab tests. They can be misleading sometimes.

"He went to the sexual health clinic, but by the time his appointment came round it had cleared up and he wasn’t tested for anything."

Sounds really unlikely to me. Now, why might he lie about what happened?

So as you know you've been faithful, there's one really obvious conclusion to draw

I knew my post would get read into.

No one has been unfaithful. That’s why I’m so confused.

I'm an ex sexual health nurse.
I'm terribly sorry but I don't know of any other mode of transmission, other than sex.

Thank you

Hate to say it but it sounds like he's been up to something. Whether or not he is lying about his results or already been treated after giving it to you, who knows. Unless you had a blood transfusion off someone who had it... there's pretty much oy one way to catch a sexualy transmitted disease.

I don't know of any way to contract it except through sex with someone who has it.

Sorry x

Why didn't the sexual health clinic do swabs? You don't need symptoms to be tested for gonorrhoea, chlamydia or HIV

That was his question when he went in to be treated after me. His original notes say he ‘didn’t want to be tested’ and he’s disputed that.

Read into that what you will!

Were you with him when he was tested op?

It's most likely that he's been treated and didn't tell you. I know you don't want to believe he has been unfaithful but gonorrhoea is contracted by sexual contact. Sorry OP

If he didnt get tested why did it come back that he was negative?

Just googled it. It can remain asymptomatic, for months or years. Over half of women can be asymptomatic. But left untreated it causes complications. Do you have complications? The website didn't say what they were.

There is no way that someone would not be tested on the basis that their symptoms had abated. For that is exactly how some STIs behave.

He wouid have had this explained to him, and they would expect to carry out the tests. The only way that they would not be done is if the client refused.

Which tallies perfectly with the paperwork.

So I read into it that he is wildly misrepresenting what happened. Why would he do that?

Occam's razor, OP- the simplest explanation is probably the correct one.

Sorry

I'm not blaming, just didn't want to go straight to him cheating on you.

How do you know that his text message from clinic REALLY came from the clinic?

You can have gonorrhoea for years and not have any symptoms for years (a really high proportion of women have no symptoms and/or only develop them later); unfortunately, this means it can cause scarring in your uterus and impact on fertility. Many women only find out years after. If you are thinking about a family do ask for a gynaecologist referral after you’ve been treated.

"It can remain asymptomatic, for months or years."

Yes, if you have it asymptomatically, you can indeed have it for years.

But if you are gong to show symptoms it will usually be within a week or two of exposure (though it can stretch up to 30 days). Which puts onset for OP at totally textbook timing following her DH's symptoms

I think hes lying to you op.

We have a completely monogamus relationship.

Oh dear. Sorry to say this but you really don’t. ☹️

Oh no OP.

I really don’t think there’s any disputing what’s happened here. Sorry.

It could be that you have bacterial vaginosis. This is fairly common and can give you the symptoms you describe. They cannot formerly diagnose gonorrhoea without the swab results so I would wait for those until you jump to any conclusions.
That being said, I am confused as to why your DP went to the GUM clinic and decided not to get tested for anything despite his symptoms taking him there. That doesn’t seem right to me.

We have a completely monogamus relationship.

One of you doesn't