Can anyone help with this as I keep going around in circles. We bought a house to live in, lived there for 3 years then my husband got a job abroad. After 10 years we moved back, with the view to moving into the house. We relocated during the pandemic and couldn't get the tenant out of the property, so had to rent elsewhere. In the end we had to take him to court to get him out. We then had to sign a contract ourselves so had to continue renting. We now want to sell. I've been on the HMRC website and understand that we (may) have to pay CGT on the years we rented the property out even though we had to move for work (which I believe makes a difference as it wasn't bought for an investment and our only home as we had to move around for my husband's job). I've read through every bit of legislation I can find on this and still can't get a straight answer. I understand that we will get PRR for the years we rented if we have to pay and reduce the bill by taking fees off the total, but I just want to know if we will have to pay it or not. Any advice is helpful! Tried HMRC and just can't get through!!