Anybody not had pre-eclampsia in 1st pregnancy but then got it on a later one?

[pinkdolly]

Hello all,

I am 14 weeks pg with dc no 4. My first 2 pg's were PE free. But I got it at about 35/36 weeks with dd3 (she was induced at 37 weeks). They now want me to see a consultant with this pg.

I was just wandering if anybody had been in this situation before. I know if you have PE in your first pg you are more likely to get in subsequent pg's. But haven't had any experience in this situation.

The midwives last time and in fact this time are baffled as apparently if you are gong to suffer with PE it will get you in your first pg.

I'm just wandering what the likelyhood is of me to develop it in this pg (have asked midwife and she doesn't know). My consultant appointment is not till the 10th Dec so I thought I'd see if anyone on here had some experience of this.

Thanx

Pink

I had it with my first pg, and yes that is thought to be the most likely time.

BUT, apparently if you have a subsequent pregnancy with a different father, then risks are high again, as in a first pregnancy.

wot surprise said if however it was a new partner for dc3 and the same partner now your risk will drop again I think

Good luck

That's why they think i'm weird, all my children are my dh's.

That is bizarre - a friend of mine had PE with her second child and not her first BUT her first was born 7 wks premature (for reasons unrelated to PE). They said to her that it was basically unheard of to get PE with a second child if you haven't developed it with the first and that the 'only' explanation was that had she gone to term with first baby she would have developed it. So going by your story that's not necessarily true. I suppose there is always an exception to the rule though?

didn't have it in first, did in second. i'd ignore baffled look of the midwives tbh, they do that a lot with PE...

good luck.

Was chatting with the sonographer about it last week and she said that maybe had i gone longer with dd1 and 2 that I might have developed PE also. But dd1 was born on her due date and dd2 only 3 days early so that doesn't ring true either.

Do you think it's possible they mis-diagnosed me last time?

hi pinkdolly,
having had severe PE in my first pg from 27 weeks, baby born by c/s at 34 weeks and me being on HDU, I have researched a lot into this.

With my second pg, different father, I never had PE but did have pregnancy induced hypertension (infact I don't know how they can call it that as I always have high BP).
My second was born a week late.

Now I am pregnant with third, same father as DS2, and fingers crossed it won't happen again!

How did they diagnose you the first time? 24-hour urine collection? bloods? and trial on anti-hypertensives? also apparently the anti-hypertensives can cause false blood readings and show your bloods to be that of someone with PE.

I had severe headaches, terrible swelling of hands, ankles and face and +++ protein in my urine. BP was 190/120 at one point, and that was on meds! (normal for me is 140/90 at highest). All my bloods came back positive for PE and I was told I had to deliver immediately.

xx

sorry, my bloods came back positive for PE from 27 weeks but they kept me in hospital with daily monitoring. At 34 weeks my kidneys showed up to be functioning really poor and so I had to deliver within the hour, hence the c/s.

I did not have preeclampsia with my first who was a week overdue. With my second I had high blood pressure from 27 weeks on then at 35 weeks blood tests came back showing preeclampsia and urine was+4 protein. I am now 20 weeks pregnant with number 3 (all same father) and have no idea if I will get it again.

I was told that although it is less likely to appear with a second or more pregnancy it is by no means unheard of.

Sophie