Any Danish solicitors here? (Divorce question)

[IlonaRN]

A friend is getting divorced in Denmark.
She has been told that the house her husband purchased after the divorce request/petition (skilsmissebegæringen) was sent in is considered his property only. But the deposit must have come from "their" money. How can this be considered only his?

Here you would have to prove it was wanton spending of assets (reckless) and was done to deprive the spouse of assets. Buying a house probably wouldn’t fall into these categories. The sum spent could be added back in but it’s not often done here. Don’t know about Denmark. One assumes the legal adviser there is correct. If your friend is staying in the family home, what was spouse supposed to do? Was he given money by family? If possible, she needs full disclosure of assets but somewhere to live might be seen as reasonable if she’s staying put. If not, she should argue for a house deposit too.