I have read this post and wonder if a solicitor can just answer one query whether that be Collaborate or another legal...
Collaborate says:
"On some loans the solicitors have to underwrite the loan themselves"
We know there are different ways to obtain funds to have representation in divorce proceedings, be it own funds, credit card, loans from the high St, Sears Tooth agreements with your chosen lawyer if they will agree one which defers their fees to be paid from assets when sold, there are legal services orders applied for through court where other options have to be shown ( to a not overly demanding degree ) to have been exhausted as unavailable to the client. Amongst these is the option of what are called litigation loans.
What has been written so far here the litigation loan sounds very straightforward. But it does something different to other money sources. It takes security on the assets subject to ancillary relief proceedings...the very things being carved up and in limited supply for settlements.
So what the solicitor is becoming involved in is a promise to the loan company that it will pay the loan off once it gets settlement monies from sale of property usually (but it could be a car etc instead) which the loan rules require it gets under its control. That means the other party loses control not only to the selling process but has a charge hanging over their assets on top of any others that existed already eg their mortgage.
They call this an assignment from the solicitor to the loan company so the loan company is ensured repayment of the loan...the loan being the interest on top of the amount they have received through the case which was advanced to cover the legal fees of the solicitor .
But the solicitor cannot use its client account for banking...breach of SRA rule 14.5. Hmmmm. I am now perplexed!
What I am not sure about is how this differs from a Sears Tooth because it seems to me the solicitor is making a Sears Tooth with the loan company. Is that effectively what it is?
Is seems it is a double whammy in that the assets are beholden both by a Sears Tooth effectively and charges?
The loan itself is between the client and the loan company but they all need the solicitor to operate it.
The security on the lending comes by way of charges put on assets that may be jointly owned.
So can legal here explain if my understanding is correct because it is a complex set up. Also do solicitors discuss or consider conflicts of interest much on these in so far as their professional duties to numerous parties including the concept of preserving assets for all parties.
I do have another question but that is enough for now!