My husband and I have lived in our house for seven years. When we bought the property we were advised that a small section of land opposite the house (its almost like a lay by on the side of the road) belonged to the property. It had been cleared and maintained by the previous owners for many years, however it was not on the deeds of our property, or anyone else’s. Last year, my husband and I sought ownership of the land as we sometime use it to leave a car in and instructed a solicitor to pursue it. We received no objections, the council were happy for us to use it to leave a vehicle or two in and it was duly registered to the deeds of our property.
We started some work on the walls of the area this week in order to tidy it up and have been visited by the owner of a property half a mile down the road from ours that he believes the land is on his house deeds and he intends to instruct a solicitor to seek ownership. Why he wants to do this we do not know, as although one of his fields backs up onto the land there is approximately a 12 foot drop from the area of land into his field, so it is not accessible to him.
Is anyone on here able to advise how likely it is that he would be able to raise a dispute over this issue and seek ownership?
Many thanks for any advice.