Once again EVIDENCE please instead of this bollock pseudo psychology.
Can you explain why, as mentioned before, abortion rates in South America and Africa where abortion is illegal are far higher than West Europe?
Can you also explain that whilst England and Wales' abortion laws are more relaxed than NI, but generally more restrictive than most of Europe where abortion is available on demand, why the abortion rate is slightly higher than the European average in England and Wales? Surely by your reasoning, you would expect England and Wales's rate to be lower? Worst still the European average is inflated by differences in Eastern Europe. When compared to Western Europe alone, England and Wales come out far higher than average. Odd isn't it?
So what's going on? Are the laws the 'slippery slope'? Or is it that attitudes to sexual behaviour, family planning and other social behaviour - such as drinking - for both men and women have much more of an impact on abortion rates? Is it that healthier attitudes to women from men, have a positive effect on abortion rates? Noting here in particular differences in teenage pregnancy rates.
What evidence do you have that the slippery slope of abortion on request exists, because if it is the law that is the issue that data should exist.
It doesn't.
Why?
Its important if you are going to start drawing conclusions from thin air based on nothing more than your opinion.