Does a house in divorce get split equally or by contribution?

[Newyearbee]

Is a house split 50:50 generally or does it depend who put more in to buying house in first place? My ex contributed a little more to buying our family home as he had money from a flat sale (a flat he bought before we met) so will he therefore get a larger share of the equity?

Are you joint tenants or tenants in common on the deed? Any deposit ring fenced?

It’s about both people being able to be adequately rehoused. I don’t think anyone can really advise you though without knowing your full circumstances though; get a free consultation with a solicitors firm; they can give you some generally advice that will help you understand it all and apply to your situation

contributions and whether an asset was owned pre marriage can be considered. But it will depend on many factors including total assets, length of marriage, incomes, housing needs etc. there’s no formula and anything is possible.

you’ve posted a few times now. What’s the stumbling block ?

It doesn't matter if they are married.

It's about needs being met as much as possible with the assets of the marriage.

Whose paid what only comes in in short marriage (approx 5 years marriage and cohabitation or less).

That's too vague information to work on. The length of the marriage will affect things as will each person's earnings/potential as will whether there are children of the marriage and how old they are.

It's not an automatic 50/50.