How/why has the Oxford efficacy figures changed?

[latti]

I’ve read articles all over this morning but I am still none the wiser.

What was in this final tranche of data they sent over last week?

Have they re-done another trial? In just one month? How?

How has 62% or 90% become 95%?

Help me understand!

I think the new data they had was from the USA trial, which recently unblinded, so this could have affected their stats, hopefully positively!
I might be wrong though!

mobile.twitter.com/hildabast/status/1343090440518520833

Thanks for the Twitter thread, I’m working my way through it!

I just thought this would be picked up on and more easily explained in the news?!

She does say that she is "assuming in above thread that US results haven't arrived a month earlier than expected." But if that's wrong and they have, then that might explain the new data? One of the Oxford people also said something similar to the Pfizer CEO about new data, but it was all a bit vague...hopefully we will find out in the next day or two...

I thought Pascal Soriot said something about having got the right dosing regime?

This, from a few days ago, quotes Prof Bell:

Prof Bell told BBC Radio 4’s Today programme that the MHRA “got data quite a long time ago, but that was the first set of data.”

“They receive multiple sets of data. So we are getting to be about prime time now, I would expect some news pretty shortly,” he continued.
www.fifetoday.co.uk/lifestyle/oxford-universitys-astrazeneca-vaccine-could-be-approved-just-after-christmas-3077354

I’m starting to wonder if there’s been an issue with the data.