ninagleams - Wow! The whole world is in a bubble, only you can see 'the truth'.
IMHO I'm not sure that the symbolism of the handing down of names through the male line is much to do with gender inequality or oppression of women anyway unless that's what you choose to see in it. There are various periods in history you could choose to examine for the various languages of families and names.
This 'ownership of women' and 'patriarchal society' most obviously makes me think of (stereotypically) victorian times. Actually there was a fair amount of women's lib went on in Victorian times. The 'rule of thumb' being an example. The rule of thumb is one of the early examples of domestic violence laws.
Is anyone really forced to take their husbands name now? I'm not sure, I would assume not. I'm not sure women ever really were forced directly but at certain times the advantages were many and the disadvantages could have been terrible.
The origin of giving children the fathers surname is, I suspect, because you can always identify maternal ownership of a child, given that it is grown inside the woman, therefore paternal ownership is asserted through the name. This makes sense before record keeping in identifying heirs and family groups.
In the beginning this was first names, it then developed into surnames. In the beginning there was no ownership of women and I suspect once the ownership of women part developed that was more to do with legitimisation of children and inheritance for women and children who have always tended to live longer than men if they did not die in childbirth.
If you look at surnames and prefixes as symbols of male oppression of women the clear thing to do is either choose your own name or to only go by a first name surely?