I don't know. I'm sort of thinking out loud. But taking your burglary example, while I can see your argument I'm not sure I agree.
Certainly it's true that the experience of having someone nick your telly or nick your dead gran's jewellery aren't the same. But when it comes to trying to reflect that difference in the criminal justice system, it seem to me you run into all kinds of problems. I suspect I'm on the wrong side of history on this. But I'm deeply uncomfortable with the idea that the force of the law should be determined by factors as subjective and inherently incommensurable as individual experiences of impact.
Staying with the burglary example, for a moment. Let's say one person is burgled and nothing much is stolen, just a pair of £40 earrings and a DAB radio. But the owner of these items is already quite fragile and the experience plunges them into depression and anxiety and causes them to be signed off work on long-term sick leave. Then, let's say a second person is burgled, tied to a chair and threatened with a knife, and family heirlooms worth £15,000 are taken. But this person is pretty stoical, has insurance and a good support network, and seems pretty okay and is continuing to function in the workplace.
According to the logic of victim impact, arguably the first burglary is more sever than the second. But is that really just? Really? How are you supposed to measure that? It just seems to me a recipe for strange unevenness in the justices system.
To me, while the subjective impact of a crime on the victim/s of said crime is of course something you'd respond sympathetically to when talking to that victim, I'm just not convinced that it should be the main determinant of how severe the crime itself was. I just think that should be agreed more objectively, by society as a whole.