If you want to object to my choice of articulating "wanted" as "consented to" then that's up to you - but in practical terms it amounts to the same thing.
Yes, I do want to.
The word "consent" when applied to sex is extremely loaded and tied up with how rape is defined and understood.
We also live in a culture where a woman is legally seen to have given her consent to sex because she went into a hotel room with a man, and where there are a lot of people publicly arguing that she also gave consent to any other man who came to the room.
This is the world we live in, and you are trying to claim it is not problematic to attach the idea of, and the word, consent to sex in secondary sense.
I understand what you are trying to say. But I don't believe you are stupid enough not to see the problems with using the word consent in this way.
Another poster has already tried to claim that this situation is a bit like rape.
So this is how a woman "rapes" a man - by getting pregnant without his "consent".
I'm sure my rapist would have argued that he didn't "consent" to my pregnancy.
The words you choose matter. This is not an issue of consent.
This is a man who is willingly and knowingly having sex without contraception.
If his wife gets pregnant, he has no valid cause for complaint.
Yes, he might be enough of a dick to complain, or take it out on the baby, or leave his family.
But nothing nefarious is being done to him.
If you want to argue that the OP should talk to him (as many have) and make the issue explicit, so he can't presume anything, then do that.
But using a loaded word like "consent" here, and suggesting that the OP is operating without it, is obviously putting blame and responsibility where it can't lie, and making comparisons to rape.