RedHelenB - so does that mean that when one of my Exes decided that it was fine to penetrate me anally whilst I was asleep, repeatedly, that I gave consent to it by sharing a bed with him?
Because I DIDN'T give consent. In fact, I actively made sure he KNEW that he didn't have my consent.
Yet still he continued to do it.
I was unable to do anything about it, as I was asleep (so no way he could have gained my consent), and would wake up to him lying on top of me (I sleep on my front), with his hand over my mouth so that I couldn't say no, or scream, and him having already entered me.
Did I consent to that because I shared a bed with him?
NO I BLOODY DIDN'T!
Rape is rape.
A non-rapist seems to find it easy to know that you ascertain consent BEFORE the act, only rapists seem to find this difficult.
In my mind, there is no way that I gave consent to be anally raped by that ex of mine, despite sharing a bed with him. And he knew it.
He chose to ignore that because he is a rapist, not because it was in any way difficult for him to know that I didn't consent to that particular act, and wouldn't have consented to that particular act.
Non-rapists know how not to rape. Only rapists don't seem to.