We recently got a new mortgage, and though I am a SAHM, so not actually bringing money into the house right now, the mortgage is held jointly between us. It hadn't occurred to us to do it any other way as DH supports my contribution as a SAHM, just as I value his contribution as sole money earner.
Anyway, a letter arrived yesterday from the company we've taken the mortgage out with, offering us a homeowner loan. Presumably, as the mortgage is held jointly between us, we're both homeowners. Why then, was the loan offer addressed only to my husband?
Am actually really a bit angry about this TBH. Thoughts, if you'd be so kind!
Thank you 