This may not be an original thought, but it has just occured to me.
If the people who were formerly known as women are to be reclassified as "people with uteruses" or "people who menstruate", and trans women obviously aren't people with uteruses or people who menstruate, does this mean that the only people who can now be called "women" are actually biological men?
And also:
If these new definitions are meant to be inclusive, what about the exclusion of intersex women who often don't menstruate and sometimes don't have a uterus? As I understand it, there are more intersex people than trans-gender people, so those whom the terminology excludes because of their biology are greater in number than those whom it includes because of their identity. And even if they're not greater in number, it's still excluding one group in favour of another.