Hi OP,
Im not sure I understand the question/issue. Not being difficult- genuinely don’t.
By way of background I worked in immigration law for 12 years and both articles 8 and 12 were cited continuously in claims or appeals that the government (the State) should not be interfering in a person’s (the client) right to family and/or private life by service of removal directions (ie intending to remove their client from the UK). I was fully aware of case law and so on so I understand the convention and the UK’s human rights act well.
Do you mean why is the interference permitted to family life or to private life by the State for the reasons given in 8:2 (8:2 is the permitted reasons for interfering in private or family life) not also permitted with respect to the right to marry?
And if that’s the question, what has that got to do with issues you then raise..?
I don’t know if I’m getting your point right because marriage or more specifically the right to marry is unrelated to any of the points you make about transgender people or educators, sex hormones bring damaging or safeguarding.
Do you mean that State interference should be permitted for reasons akin or identical to those outlined in Article 8.2 in relation to desired transgender specific rights? The State cannot interfere in proposed rights or argument or opinion…The State can interfere, either lawfully, or unlawfully (when it gets it wrong), in established rights and only for the reasons given.
Perhaps you mean that when, let’s say educators wish to educate on transgender issues the State can lawfully interfere (but currently it does not) because other people’s rights are being wrongfully violated, denied or ignored and that it could because of specific parts of the Convention permit lawful interference to the right to education (just like in Article 8)? In that case the Convention right is the right to education not specific educational content …
Or is there something about Article 12 that you think actually enables the issues you raise at the end of your post?
Are you saying that the State should be able to intervene in a person’s right to marry? What does that have to do with transgender people/issues/events?
I’m guessing transgender rights proponents cite Article 8 because they contend that the Convention right is being denied to them, by the State, because they allege that State is violating their private life in failing to provide a legal recognition of “self ID”. I have no idea what Article 12 has to do with that..unless it’s then argued that lack of self-ID lawfully would make it impossible to marry..
Those claims have a sound basis.. (I don’t agree with the actual argument) but it’s saying the State is interfering in an existing right or rights.
But what doesn’t follow from the Convention is that when an individual or a group do things to damage other people that the State can intervene on the basis of the Convention. State interference with a Convention right has to be an interference to that right - not to behaviour/opinions espoused by a lot of people/a few people. The Convention doesn’t turn the State into Big Brother- it’s supposed to do exactly the opposite - to defend and protect personal freedoms. It isn’t intended to enable the State to mediate in opinion.
You could argue that.. this is an example.. that the police failed to act lawfully in accordance with Article 8 in arresting someone for having a private diary in which they expressed views about transgender people but not that it was unlawful for the State not to intervene just because someone wrote something in their diary that was offensive or shocking.
There are no duties for tbe State to intervene in Convention rights. I’m wondering if you are reading 8.2 as a positive duty to intervene in 8.1 rights when the situations in 8.2 occur but that is wrong. No such State intervention is demanded. It merely says IF a convention right (8.1) is to be interfered with it can only be for 8.2 reasons.