The phrase 'assigned at birth' referring to sex is becoming more frequent. The government-published consultation document for the changes to the Gender Recognition Act has the following definition for sex: that it is defined by medical practitioners at birth. This is part of the explanatory glossary for the document, not one of the questions for the consultation.
I think this definition is actively wrong. Biological sex either male or female is observable in the vast majority of cases from the external genitals, either at birth or frequently from an ultrasound image of a foetus's developing genitals in the womb. Many parents now chose to have antenatal chromasomal testing for a variety of reasons, which can include accurate information on biological sex early in human gestation.
I think it is very important that definitions of words in a government document are accurate and complete. 'Assigned female/male at birth' is becoming a more commonly used phrase but does not relate to reality. It has been used in the past in relation to a small number of cases where a baby was born with a disorder of sexual development, befote chromosomal testing was widely available. It is not appropriate or accurate to use it about children born in the UK in modern times.
I want to write to my MP and ask for a vote in the House of Commons about the use of this specific definition in government documents and statements. I'm happy to use my own words, but can anyone tell me if anything in this statement is factually wrong? I obviously want to encourage accuracy, not perpetuate further lies.