When I married my partner I owned a house outright and they owned two flats with mortgages. They initially moved in with me (bigger house) but felt unhappy as it had been a previous family home. I sold it and put all the proceeds (£660,000) into the purchase of a new house which we bought in joint names and see as jointly owned. There is a mortgage on the new house which we pay jointly and equally. I assumed that the flats would therefore be considered to be shared. However my partner see them as still soley theirs. They keep all the rental income. They say because they lived in my property for a while that made it theirs whereas I never lived in their flats. I feel very upset about this.Am I just being stupid?