Can I just go back to the dietary restrictions conundrum as it intrigues me.
In some translations of the Bible there is a part which goes like this:
Mark 7:19 (NIV translation)
For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
This is taken by some people as justification for abandoning dietary restrictions.
However, the part in parenthesis does not appear in all translations. It does not appear in the King James Version, for example.
I have read that it does not appear in the original Greek manuscripts either but I cannot vouch for this as I can't read Greek!
It seems that the part in parenthesis does not add clarity but is misleading. Reading Mark and Matthew together, it becomes clear that what is being referred to is eating with unclean hands, not eating unclean meat.
In short, Jesus was not saying you don’t need to follow the Jewish food laws. That was a later misinterpretation.
Jesus did not want to tamper with pre-existing laws.
Matthew 5:17 (NIV translation)
Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfil them.
In Acts, as others have posted, Peter, an apostle who knew Jesus when he was alive, is surprised to find out - via his vision - that the food laws have apparently been cancelled.
Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.”
The voice spoke to him a second time, “Do not call anything impure that God has made clean.”
Why would Peter be surprised if Jesus, during his lifetime, had made it clear that the dietary rules no longer applied?