Just something that's cropped up which seems a bit illogical to me, but I'm curious if my logic is just off.
Husband has been married before and has 2 adult children. In his will he wants to leave equal shares to his adult children and our younger 2 children , sensible to me so far.
He divorced his ex wife some time ago and she received what can only be described as a HUGE settlement which has been invested and grown. (We know this for sure as they are still friendly and he does her accounts for her).
Solicitor suggested that any money I have left after I bring up my children and spend on living at the end of my life should not be left and split between my children as we assumed, but it should be as it should be split between all four of my husbands children. I questioned this as did my husband as the older ones would inherit a large amount from their mother which although had grown from investment has essentially come from him t basically is an inheritance from their mother and my children's would be an inheritance from me.
In short they would all receive from their father and all receive from their respective mothers. We Both thought this was fair and sensible
Am I the one with the strange idea or is the solicitor?In likelihood the sums will be similar , with the caveat that me and my children are younger than his ex wife so with probability inflation could have caused them to increase by that time, although what they can buy will also cost more if you see what I mean.
I'm really confused by this and the solicitor s insistence this is what should be done. I was already puzzled by the level complexity the solicitor was going into; I appreciate the situation isn't as simple as it could be, but this doesn't seem logical. Is it just me not understanding?