We live on a new build estate, the houses are about 2 years old and we all moved in at roughly the same time. We are on a shared driveway of 5 houses...us (house 1) and house 5 are on the main road either side of the entrance to the driveway, houses 2 3 and 4 are all set further back with their driveways branching of the central driveway. All the houses are fairly close together.
House 2 is directly behind us but at a 90 degree angle and has a long narrow driveway (as opposed to side by side) which runs along the back of our garden. We own a piece of land that runs directly along part of their driveway, which although belonging to us is not fenced in as part of our garden, and of no use to us at all, we've only ever been on it to cut the grass. It's a bit daft it belongs to us rather than to house 2 tbh.
House 2 have asked if they can pave or gravel this piece of land at their own expense, as they tread on it daily to get their grandchildren and daughter in a wheelchair in and out of their car and as it's slightly sloping and gets muddy in the winter, it would make their lives easier.
In theory I have no problem with this but I am worried about somehow accidentally creating a right to use the land or a right of way which could cause us problems if we come to sell: it would be really obvious why that patch of grass, and not the bigger area next to it, which we also own, had been paved i.e. to make it easier for house 2 to use it for access in and out of their car.
They are nice neighbours and I'd like to do this if we can, but I'm not prepared to do anything which could cause issues for us later down the line.
Any conveyancing solicitors about that might know anything about this please?! I'm not willing to seek legal advice at this stage as it's only just been raised and obvs I'd have to pay, but if anyone has an idea about the legal position here as a start point I"d be ever so grateful.