House was owned and paid by dh before marriage

[Appleholic]

Does that mean its a premarital asset for dh? In the case of things going wrong.

Depends on lots of things. How long you were married, what each persons earnings are, whether any children were born during the marriage, whether the house deeds are in both names.

Married 11 years, one small child, I work part time. Had house put in my name as asked to. Tenants in common.

As I understand it once it is in your name too then it's split between you both if you split up.

Then if you divorce it will likely be split 50/50.

Only recently got him to agree to this. Was reluctant to before, said why should I benefit from house I hadn't paid into.

Even if the house wasn't in your name it could be considered a joint asset once you are married a while (which you have been) especially with a child. Hope this doesn't mean that things are rocky?

Joint tenants is different from tenants in common (the latter means you have a fixed percentage stake) so please make sure you get advice on this.

Been married 18 years. Think its tenants in common, but have to check paperwork.

I put 11 years married before that was typing error.

Married for 18 years and the house is in both your names - I’m not 100% sure but I’m pretty confident it would be split 50/50 if you divorced.