A distant relative has just sadly gone into care (dementia). He is not married but has a long-term partner with whom he has two adult children.
His family seem to think he won't have to sell his property to pay for the fees because "he has put his house in his son's name". I'm trying to think what this means and surely if it were that simple everyone would do it?
Are they misunderstanding the system? Or how could they have achieved this? They are in England.