I'm asking this because I often see throw-away comments along the lines of 'of course in the past students wouldn't have been able to get away with / get high grades with poor spelling'.
But then my DMum who cannot spell to the extent that her shopping lists often need translation passed the 11+ with flying colours and went to what would now I'm sure be called a superselective grammar. (Apparantly they had one token working class girl, one token black girl and one token Jewish girl in every year - she was the working class one for her year
).
And when I asked how this could be, she says that her recollection was that spelling never counted for more than 2 or 3 % of the marks at any point, therefore it never damaged her exam prospects. Indeed the main suggestion of her teachers to deal with it - rather than remedial teaching as I'm sure she would be getting at school today - was that she should look for a job where she would have a secretary . . .