Right I am in dispute with an ebayer regarding the postage payment. Basicaly he says I have not paid any postage on an item and he has had to pay it his end.
Right I have called royal mail customer services.
They cannot tell me whether a surcharge (i.e. underpayment by myself) has been applied. What they have told is this:
A postman would not attempt delivery if a surcharge for underpayment had been applied. A postman would have delivered a "fee to pay" card asking the recipient to collect the parcel from his postoffice/sorting office, after payment of surcharge. Alternatively if he doesn't collect it will be returned to me free of charge. He has collected and apparently paid the full postage on teh item.
This is the response I plan:
"Dear pillock,
Having contacted royal mail customer services, who have stated that a recorded delivery article must be paid for at point of dispatch [little white lie here]. They question whether a surcharge has been applied as a result of a weighing discrepancy, but that in this case teh postman would not have attempted delivery, he would have left a "fee to pay" card. In order for me to persue this with my local post office I need evidence that you have had what royal mail are terming a "surcharge" applied. Could you please send me a copy of the "fee to pay" card that the postman left, and your receipt for the payment. I may also need the original documents at a later date. With both of these I shall take my claim to my local post office with respect to their ability to correctly weigh parcels.
Lots of love and kisses SMS xxx"
What do you think. Does it sound as tho I am giving in? If he can provide evidence I will meet him half way. But the phone call and the information he has iven me lead me to think he is bullshitting me. I am not paying him anything w/o evidence he has paid anything.