Even if they avoid the courts, their financial consent order will still have be approved by a judge. That won't happen if it's egregiously favouring one party over the other.
I think if she has:
£400k house
£350 a month
CM
And he has
All the debts
No assets
It will be denied outright.
If he's sought legal advice, I expect he will either want a chunk of the house or there are other greater undisclosed assets. A lawyer would advise against this as a financial settlement.
The lawyer may have said offer £350 now while we draw up a proposal. But the house would be on the table in that.
I think the most likely and reasonable outcome (as outlined before) is:
- all debts are totted up
- all assets (house, pensions, savings, investments) are added up.
- house is sold and firstly used to clear debts on both sides
- remaining assets / equity split. If possible, she's given enough to buy a two bedroom house outright. The rest plus his salary multiples is used to fund his two bedroom house.
- no spousal as she is housed outright while he has maxed mortgage.
- CM at CMS levels.
It's hard to be accurate without the details. But here is an example.
House worth £400,000
Imagine total debts are £40,000
Imagine mortgage is also £40,000
Pretend there are no pensions or savings
Total equity left is £320,000 (less sales fees etc, so let's call it £300k for sake of argument).
Mortgage capacity is typically approx 3.5-4x salary. But CM is taken into account and self employed amounts are usually much lower. So let's say he can comfortably raise £230k.
She will be expected to work full time / maximise her earns. Even on min wage, she's looking at a salary around £16k, which gives her a mortgage capability of about £55k.
If she's given £237,500 from the house - plus her £55k mortgage - she can buy a house worth £292,500. (That's a teeny mortgage and a huge deposit).
Equally, his mortgage capability plus the remaining £62,500 in the house gives him the exact same house fund.
All the debts have been cleared.
Her monthly mortgage payments are approx £321.50.
His monthly mortgage payments are approx £1,345
Clearly no spousal.
That's giving him 21% of the house and her 79%. In reality I think 70/30 is more likely.
Of course the actual size of the mortgage and debts will significantly impact this. And the calcs are just an example. If she goes for spousal he'll need a far higher percentage of the house.
Also his CM and the fact he's self employed could drop his mortgage capacity even further. At which point she'll be looking at more like 60/40. Any pensions can come into play and be equalised. Likewise other assets.
If his company is incorporated- his business could also be on the table as an asset. This is hugely complicated and needs specialist advice.
Any lawyer should be telling him to look up two bed property particulars near the schools. Offer her enough equity to buy outright or with a teeny mortgage. And get a clean break.
I cannot imagine any lawyer suggesting he keeps all debts, no assets, pays her £350 a month in SM and CM on top. And has nothing for himself