Had a long chat with the Ex about our potential financial settlement. We'll start divorce and financial split later this year. What's your take on it - has he been unfair with his own spending, and his proposal in general? Or am I being unreasonable here? 
Background
Married 11 years
I'm a SAHM mum, living in the FMH.
Only he has the mortgage on the property (I can't get one)
We have one daughter, starting school this year. (So I believe I'm expected to work 25 hours a week at that point, probably minimum wage)
Daughter lives with me, but stays 3 nights with him. (no custody order)
He pays me CM and extras (there's no CMS arrangement)
He deducts the mortgage cost from the CM, and pays the mortgage directly.
Ex is probably on a good income, though I don't know what.
Complication
Some time after moving out (2.5 years ago), he gave a lump of money from his account, to a relative (as he told me last night!).
Relative then bought a second home, in their name.
He's been renting that second home ever since, at the going rate.
He's spent money on fixing things and renovating parts of it.
He also says there's further fixes he needs to do, and isn't going to wait around (!) until divorce and financial splits are finalised, which he says could take ages.
My reaction was not happy! But this is what he suggested for a financial split (figures slightly rounded):
The assets:
70k = FMH equity
23k = lump of money he gave to a relative
7k = money he's spent on fixing things and renovations where he stays
100k = total
A 70:30 split
- I effectively keep 100% of the FMH equity (70k). (He says he'd sign the deeds over to me, but mortgage may not allow it.)
- He will continue paying the FMH mortgage on my behalf, but will continue deducting it from the CM (Says it allows him better chance to get own mortgage in future)
- He effectively keeps what he's already spent (30k) (although he says he won't be recouping what he spent...)
- He says he will not pay spousal maintence, as this would stop him being able to get a mortgage for himself, and he couldn't guarantee he'd be able to afford it in the future.
I told him:
-It was wrong for him to spend money sorting out a place for himself, and fixing it up, as he's basically deprived me of any share of it in cash.
-From now on until a financial split is approved, if we're agreeing on a 70:30 split, he should be giving me 70% of his monthly income (including CM). That way he's free to spend his remaining 30% on his own stuff. Because what happens if he overspends? It'll reduce the amount left for me, and he won't be able to offset that from the FMH house equity, if he's already giving me 100% of it.
So what's your opinion?
- was it fair of him to use money to set himself up, once he'd moved out, thus depriving me of cash, but offsetting it from the FMH equity?
- should he give me 70:30 of his income until divorce, to stop him overspending on the place he's currently in? Or just wait until divorce is done?
- is he right to propose continued deduction of mortgage from CM, if he's giving me 100% of the FMH equity?
- he says he's not recouping any of the money he spent and that its not an investment, but I think he should still declare it on the Form E somewhere? Even if its no longer a saving to recoup, or an investment.
- if I did agree to this 70:30 split at some point, do you think a court would think its fair?
- anything further I should ask him to change, to make this fairer?