Since Charles tested positive, and Camilla didn't, I've wondered how that could possibly be the case.
I had a few days in April with mild symptoms. I thought that it was just a cold. I did isolate in that I didn't leave the house but I didn't isolate in the home. In fact, I carried on with wfh, cooking for family- spending time with them, sleeping with husband etc. The loss of taste/smell happened on day 5/6 and so I took an antibody test last week, and so did my husband. I have the antibodies, my husband does not. How could he possibly not have been infected after having being exposed to it to that extent?