How can only one spouse be infected?

[mackers1]

Since Charles tested positive, and Camilla didn't, I've wondered how that could possibly be the case.

I had a few days in April with mild symptoms. I thought that it was just a cold. I did isolate in that I didn't leave the house but I didn't isolate in the home. In fact, I carried on with wfh, cooking for family- spending time with them, sleeping with husband etc. The loss of taste/smell happened on day 5/6 and so I took an antibody test last week, and so did my husband. I have the antibodies, my husband does not. How could he possibly not have been infected after having being exposed to it to that extent?

Thanks very much @justasking111 - that's really interesting.

The BCG vaccine is said to lessen you’re chance of catching it. Maybe one was vaccinated and the other not?

I probably had it, DH never got symptoms though both DC did. We did sleep in a different bed but didn't self isolate otherwise (impossible in a small flat with 2 small DC)

My DBro (paramedic, we probably caught it from him before lockdown) also got ill but his housemate didn't.

My friend definetely had it (NHS dr so got tested), her wife had no symptoms.

Everyone in my 'asymptomatic' sample is under 35, healthy afaik and probably had the bcg at school. All different ethnicities. So my guess is good immune symptom responses and low viral load (eg, no kissing and hugging etc)

There was some thought that having had the TB jab was significant and it can wear off faster in some than others if they are of similar age anyway. Also immune systems are different, one might have had one if the more similar coronavirus a in the past so some basic/more efficient immunity, or could just be luck or they could have caught it at a different stage to being tested but been very mild/asymptomatic as the incubation seems to vary wildly - loads of reasons really

My mum had it and my dad, (who was her sole carer for 2 weeks before mum got taken to hospital) has not had some much as a sneeze.

• not so much as a sneeze. Forgot to say dad's 82 and the last time he was ill was before Christmas when he had a slight cold.

It’s an interesting anomaly that I’m certain is being researched.

One interesting theory I read (which @trappedsincesundaymorn reminded me of) was based on the idea that people who had recent immunity to another corona virus aka the common cold may be faring better with covid. ‘The common cold’ is caused by loads of bugs but only a few of those are corona viruses and in general we experience surprisingly few over a life time and immunity wains without recent infections. Children and parents tend to catch more due to school, nurseries, indoor play areas etc. coupled with poor hygiene because kids just sneeze in your eyeball and don’t even attempt to direct it elsewhere.

It would be great if they could prove any reason for some people not getting infected because it would provide so many more options for vaccinations, treatments and prevention.

People in my workplace have had it - only one that has been really unwell has been the older overweight man.

Presumably some of us have had it asymptomatically.

But no-ones spouses or kids have had it.

That sounds interesting about the "similar coronavirus" idea. I certainly wouldn't mind being sprayed with an easier version of the common cold and left to get over it.

My lovely hair dresser who I've knows for 20 years caught it, was tested positive, her husband and 2 children never caught it even tho they are on the shielding list for diabetes and asthma. Its been about 6ish weeks now.

I had it. DH and kids were fine
We are all the same blood group

A friend of my mum's has said her son in law has had it, the grandson was ill for about a week, the little girl had a headache for a day or two and her daughter has had no symptoms at all!

It is very interesting; but just because you are exposed to something doesn't mean you catch it, you have to be susceptible.

Pass someone in the street with it and you will be infected complete nonsense, but if people truly believe that it does explain why so many people where I live seem to need the whole street to themselves.

Thanks for all your replies.

My thinking is, if husband has been exposed to it to this extent already and didn't get infected, how likely is he to pick it up from someone in the supermarket/train (he has always been anal about hygiene, and socially distancing, insofar as was possible, anyway)? Also, as so many people seem to have some form of super/natural immunity to it, that's good in terms of avoiding a second wave, isn't it?

Also, I'm not saying I believe that you get infected passing someone in the street, but that does seem to be some people's thinking.