I came into close contact with a patient last week. She has just travelled back from a destination where the official advice is to self isolate but only if symptomatic. She claimed to have no symptoms but didn't appear unwell anyway. Our policy is to treat the client, providing they're well and coming from a place where they would only isolate if they had symptoms.
However, I thought you could have it without having symptoms at first? So in theory she could've passed it onto me?
Asking on behalf of a health conscious DH. I personally think it's all a big fuss over nothing 