I am due in 4 weeks (argh!) with a second daughter. My daughter is called Ellie-Rose and has her biological fathers (my ex husbands surname.) When we seperated, I got rid of his surname and instead of reverting to my maiden name I changed my surname to Rose so that I would have a name in common with DD. My partner and I have 'issues' in that he is still in the process of getting divorced (very early stages) despite having been seperated for almost 3 years and promising that he would do it immediately well over a year ago, hence trying for a baby. We do not live together and I have said that DD and I won't be moving in with him until he is divorced. His ex-wife is a nightmare and he has two (potential) kids with her that she is stopping him from seeing. Anyway, he has assumed (as have his family) that the baby will have his surname. I said that I wanted the baby to have a name in common with DD and I and he said we could give her the middle name Rose too, but I would prefer a different middle name from DD and I call her Roses more so than Ellie so to have the same middle name would be confusing. Am I really wrong in thinking that he kind of hasn't 'earned' the right for baby to have his name? Like I said, it's been well well over a year since he said he was getting divorced, almost 3 since he's been seperated. He's shown no real committment to baby, DD and I and I don't want to have baby being stuck with his surname if he continues to not pull his finger out if he doesn't get his divorce and kids sorted. Am I being unreasonable?