Honestly, I've always had some questions about this case and I am frankly dubious that the husband knows as much as he thinks he does. I think poor documentation might be a problem here, too.
"Due to the complications in her first pregnancy, in her second pregnancy after her first antenatal appointment she was referred to a Consultant Obstetrician"
Firstly, if you are referred for a OB appintment for review, it is because you have a risk factor. Low risk women do not see OBs. But high risk is a spectrum. You'd know why you were referred because that would be the topic of the appointment, as we see here:
I heard evidence that the advice provided to Jen by the Consultant Obstetrician was for active management of the third stage of labour and intravenous antibiotics in hospital.
So the midwives, Jen and the OBs had a conversation and the plan was made for active management and IVABX which would nearly always have to occur in hospital. HB wasn't mentioned.
In February 2024 Jen told her community midwife she was considering a home birth. Even though her pregnancy was recorded as low risk on the computer system, given her past history she was referred for a further obstetric appointment to discuss her consideration of a home birth. Jen was seen on the 5th March 2024 by an ST4 Trainee in Obstetrics.
When she did want a HB, she was referred back to the OB to discuss because of her history. Again, the topic at this appointment would have been her history and how to manage this at home. That would just be an oxytocin injection vs an oxytocin infusion in hospital plus no IVABX for the GBS+. Remember, nobody can tell her no, they can only tell her that there are increased risks and suggest how to manage them if they are acceptable to her.
I find it difficult to understand what was said at these appointments if it wasnt about risk given they were prompted by an acknowledgement of said risk. If nothing about risk was said, has this doctor been struck off?