I believe Charles became a billionaire in no small part thanks to the then PM, Sir John Major who, in 1993 introduced a series of special arrangements which ensured that assets passed from a reigning monarch to their successor would be exempt from inheritance tax.
Now even I as a 99% Republican can understand the tax exemption to maintain the value of state assets eg the Crown Jewels and Buckingham Palace, but what I can’t understand is that private assets such as Sandringham and Balmoral were also included in the arrangement!
The primary justification at the time was to prevent the monarchy's assets from being gradually diminished, or "salami-sliced away by capital taxation," across generations, potentially compromising the institution's financial independence and ability to perform its official functions.
But of course they are also funded by the British tax payer to do their job!
The other reason was because the RF can’t accrue wealth through work like ordinary people! (No but they let off-shore accounts and trust funds shoulder that burden for them!)
To be strictly fair, any assets QE2 left to anyone other than KC3 were subject to the standard 40% UK inheritance tax rules.
And these exemptions were part of a wider arrangement where QE2 voluntarily agreed to pay income tax and capital gains tax on her private income, which were put in to place after the Windsor fire.
Nonetheless, overall, Charles's personal net worth is estimated to have increased by an estimated £640 million since becoming King, almost double his mother's last reported personal wealth. According to three Times, this was largely due to the inheritance of private estates and the performance of his inherited investment portfolios.
So imho it’s high time the question is asked whether financial exemptions designed to protect state assets, should also personally benefit the monarch to such a huge extent?
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