I suppose the question would be: would it have mattered, legally speaking, if the path was a shared path or a pavement.
Even if it was a pavement, and the cyclist shouldn’t have been on there, the pedestrian still acted in a manner that led to the cyclist’s death.
I think we have to work on the assumption that this aspect of the case was covered in court. And the court still found the pedestrian guilty of manslaughter.
It would be a bad and very dangerous precedent if people were excused from culpability on the basis of the victim also acting illegally. The teenage girl who uses fake ID to get into a club, and is then raped; does her rapist get a free pass because the girl acted illegally and shouldn’t have been there in the first place? Of course he doesn’t.
Honestly. The pretzel-like knots that some people will bend themselves into to blame cyclists is quite extraordinary. In this instance it’s a form of victim-blaming.