Because it is the same hormone, just less of it right? Whenever I ask this to a nurse or doctor, they just tell me no because “it acts directly on the lining of the womb”. I don’t understand why that makes any difference though and no one seems to be able to explain it to me. I’d like to go for Mirena as I am 40 and still on the combined pill due to bleeding constantly on the mini pilI, but don’t want to go through the whole fitting of a coil of I end up bleeding constantly again. am low risk on the combined pill due to being healthy weight, non smoker etc but I still know getting off the combined pill would be better.
Did anyone bleed a lot on the mini pill but Mirena was fine?